VMware

Symantec Endpoint Protection 14.x Admin R2 Technical Specialist

250-605

Validate your skills in endpoint protection with the 250-605 exam.

198 questions 0 views Free
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Questions 21–30 of 198

Q21

What happens when an end-user disables the Symantec Endpoint Protection client?

  • A Unauthorized applications are blocked
  • B All protections remain active
  • C The system is vulnerable
  • D Remote management stops working
Explanation Disabling the SEP client opens the system to potential threats, while the others incorrectly state the state of protections or functionalities.
Q22

Which service is primarily responsible for providing virus definitions in Symantec Endpoint Protection 14.x?

  • A LiveUpdate
  • B AutoProtect
  • C Client Security Service
  • D Symantec Threat Intelligence
Explanation LiveUpdate downloads updates; others serve different functions.
Q23

A company needs to ensure they can monitor endpoint activities in real-time. What feature in Symantec Endpoint Protection should they enable?

  • A Applied Policies
  • B Real-Time Protection
  • C Scan Scheduling
  • D Application Control
Explanation Real-Time Protection actively monitors activities; others do not achieve this.
Q24

What happens when a device with Symantec Endpoint Protection encounters a possibly unwanted application during a scan?

  • A It quarantines the application immediately.
  • B It prompts the user for action.
  • C It ignores the application completely.
  • D It deletes the application automatically.
Explanation User interaction is needed for possibly unwanted apps; the others are incorrect actions for such apps.
Q25

Which service is responsible for managing policy distribution in Symantec Endpoint Protection?

  • A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM)
  • B Network Threat Protection
  • C Application and Device Control
  • D Browser Protection
Explanation The SEPM manages policy distribution, while the others are specific protection features.
Q26

A company needs to ensure that all endpoints are compliant with security policies before they connect to the network. Which feature can help achieve this?

  • A Network Access Control (NAC)
  • B Endpoint Protection Manager
  • C Firewall Rules
  • D LiveUpdate
Explanation NAC checks compliance before granting access, while others do not enforce policy compliance.
Q27

You are configuring the Sonar feature in Symantec Endpoint Protection. What happens if a file is flagged as suspicious?

  • A File is automatically deleted
  • B User is alerted with options
  • C File is ignored
  • D File is encrypted
Explanation Sonar alerts the user, allowing them to take an action, while the other options do not reflect the handling of suspicious files.
Q28

Which service in Symantec Endpoint Protection manages policies?

  • A Policy Server
  • B Endpoint Manager
  • C Client Service
  • D Network Monitor
Explanation The Policy Server is responsible for managing and distributing policies across endpoints, while the other options do not serve this specific purpose.
Q29

A company needs to protect its sensitive data on mobile devices. Which Symantec feature should they implement?

  • A Web Filtering
  • B Device Control
  • C Application Control
  • D Email Security
Explanation Device Control specifically manages access and protection for mobile devices, unlike the other features listed.
Q30

What happens when a client fails to communicate with the management server for 7 days?

  • A Client is uninstalled automatically
  • B Client remains active but unsupervised
  • C Client reverts to its last known state
  • D Client's protection features are disabled
Explanation After 7 days of failed communication, the client disables its protection features to prevent security risks, while the other options are incorrect scenarios.