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Symantec Endpoint Security Complete Admin R4 Technical Specialist

250-614

Get certified with the 250-614 exam focusing on Endpoint Security Complete.

192 questions 0 views Free
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Questions 111–120 of 192

Q111

What happens when a user attempts to access a known malicious URL while using Symantec Endpoint Security?

  • A Traffic is allowed without checks
  • B User gets redirected to a safe page
  • C Download is initiated without alert
  • D Access is blocked by the web protection feature
Explanation Symantec's web protection feature blocks access to known malicious URLs to ensure security, while other options describe incorrect behaviors.
Q112

Which service in Symantec Endpoint Security provides real-time threat intelligence updates?

  • A Norton Insight
  • B LiveUpdate
  • C Threat Analyzer
  • D SysLog Client
Explanation LiveUpdate delivers real-time updates for security definitions, while others serve different functions.
Q113

A company needs to deploy a firewall rule that blocks certain IP addresses from accessing its network. Which feature would support this requirement in Symantec Endpoint Security?

  • A Hosted Anti-Malware
  • B Network Threat Protection
  • C Application Control
  • D Device Control
Explanation Network Threat Protection allows for IP filtering, while other features focus on different protective measures.
Q114

You are configuring your endpoint encryption policy and need to change the encryption algorithm. What happens if you choose a less secure algorithm?

  • A Encryption will strengthen
  • B Security compliance will be unaffected
  • C Data becomes more instantly accessible
  • D System performance significantly improves
Explanation Choosing a less secure algorithm exposes data to potential risks, while other options present misleading effects.
Q115

Which service is primarily responsible for threat detection in Symantec Endpoint Security Complete?

  • A Sonar Technology
  • B Web Protection
  • C Email Security
  • D Device Control
Explanation Sonar Technology uses heuristics for proactive threat detection; others focus on specific vectors.
Q116

A company needs to ensure that no unauthorized devices connect to its network. What should the administrator configure?

  • A Network Access Control
  • B Host Firewall
  • C Content Filtering
  • D Data Loss Prevention
Explanation Network Access Control prevents unauthorized devices; others serve different security purposes.
Q117

You are configuring the Symantec Endpoint Security policies. What happens when you set the 'Quarantine' action for threats?

  • A Threats are deleted immediately
  • B Threats are isolated for analysis
  • C Threats are ignored
  • D Threats are reported only
Explanation 'Quarantine' isolates threats for safe review; other options misrepresent the action's function.
Q118

Which service is responsible for real-time malware protection?

  • A Antivirus Service
  • B Firewall Service
  • C Intrusion Prevention Service
  • D Endpoint Detection Service
Explanation The Antivirus Service monitors and protects against malware, while others focus on different security aspects.
Q119

A company needs to prevent data leaks. What configuration is most effective for this?

  • A Disable encryption on all devices
  • B Implement Data Loss Prevention policies
  • C Increase user access rights
  • D Use basic antivirus software only
Explanation Data Loss Prevention policies directly target data leak prevention, while other options could worsen security.
Q120

You are configuring a Symantec Endpoint Security policy. What should you consider for legacy systems?

  • A Apply newer policies without checks
  • B Ensure compatibility with older versions
  • C Ignore legacy systems during policy rollout
  • D Use only hardware solutions
Explanation Compatibility is critical to ensure legacy systems can operate without issues, while others could cause system failures.