VMware

Symantec Endpoint Security Complete Admin R4 Technical Specialist

250-614

Get certified with the 250-614 exam focusing on Endpoint Security Complete.

192 questions 0 views Free
Start Mock Test Timed · Full-length · Scored

Questions 21–30 of 192

Q21

What happens when a Symantec Endpoint client misses its scheduled definition update?

  • A It self-corrects automatically
  • B Potential vulnerabilities may arise
  • C A system reboot is required
  • D All policies are disabled
Explanation Missed updates can lead to unpatched vulnerabilities; other options are incorrect consequences.
Q22

Which service is primarily used for live threat monitoring?

  • A Threat Protection Services
  • B Network Antivirus Module
  • C Behavioral Malware Detection
  • D Automated Scan Service
Explanation Threat Protection Services provide real-time threat monitoring, while the others focus on scanning or detection.
Q23

A company needs to deploy advanced anti-malware protection across its global branches. What should they configure?

  • A Local endpoint clients only
  • B Centralized management platform
  • C Disparate antivirus solutions
  • D Periodic manual updates
Explanation A centralized management platform allows for consistent updates and policies worldwide, unlike the other options.
Q24

What happens when a device is quarantined in Symantec Endpoint Security?

  • A Immediate data loss
  • B Access to all network resources
  • C Files are isolated from the system
  • D Automatic system reboot
Explanation Quarantined files are isolated to prevent harm while the other options either lead to loss or allow access.
Q25

Which service manages patch updates in Symantec Endpoint Security?

  • A LiveUpdate
  • B Auto-Protect
  • C Network Threat Protection
  • D Application Control
Explanation LiveUpdate is responsible for managing patch updates; the others serve different security functions.
Q26

A company needs to enforce device control policies. Which feature should they use?

  • A Device Control
  • B Network Access Control
  • C Antivirus Settings
  • D Behavior Monitoring
Explanation Device Control specifically manages and restricts device usage; the other options focus on different areas of security.
Q27

What happens when you enable the 'Low Risk' setting for a file scan?

  • A It ignores all file types
  • B Skips files marked as threats
  • C Only scans system files
  • D Scans all files thoroughly
Explanation The 'Low Risk' setting skips files marked as not suspicious; the other options do not accurately describe its functionality.
Q28

Which service provides real-time threat intelligence for endpoints?

  • A Symantec Global Intelligence Network
  • B Endpoint Protection Cloud
  • C Network Access Control
  • D Web Security Service
Explanation The Symantec Global Intelligence Network offers comprehensive real-time threat intelligence, while the other options serve different functions in security management.
Q29

A company needs to comply with GDPR regarding its data protection. Which feature of Symantec Endpoint Security should they utilize?

  • A Data Loss Prevention
  • B Firewall Management
  • C Endpoint Hardening
  • D Virus Definitions Update
Explanation Data Loss Prevention is essential for GDPR compliance, as it helps monitor and protect sensitive data transfers, while the other options do not directly address data protection regulations.
Q30

What happens when a user attempts to access a malicious URL while Web Protection is enabled?

  • A Access is allowed without warnings.
  • B User receives a block page.
  • C The URL is logged only.
  • D User is redirected to a safe site.
Explanation Web Protection blocks access to malicious URLs by presenting a block page, ensuring user awareness and security, whereas the other options do not provide adequate protection.